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A 50-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He reports that he is doing well overall without any bothersome symptoms. His past medical history is significant only for hypertension, which has been well controlled with losartan. Vital signs are as follows: T 37.0 C, HR 80, BP 128/76, RR 14, SpO2 99%. Physical examination does not reveal any concerning abnormalities. The physician recommends a fecal occult blood test at this visit to screen for the presence of any blood in the patient's stool that might be suggestive of an underlying colorectal cancer. Which of the following best describes this method of disease prevention?
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