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Review Question - QID 218495

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QID 218495 (Type "218495" in App Search)
A 68-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife for confusion. The patient had sudden onset of fever, headache, and myalgias 3 days before presentation. He has also had diarrhea, abdominal pain, neck pain, and photophobia. In the past day, he has been increasingly confused and weak. He has not traveled recently or been in contact with anyone sick. His past medical history is significant for obesity, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, obstructive sleep apnea, and osteoarthritis. His medications include dapagliflozin, diclofenac gel, furosemide, losartan, metformin, rosuvastatin, and tirzepatide. He drinks 1-2 beers daily and does not use tobacco. He works as a project manager for a software company, and he lives in southern California. His temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C), blood pressure is 135/70 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 18/min, and O2 saturation is 99% on room air. The cardiopulmonary examination is notable for regular tachycardia. He is intermittently attentive and oriented to person and place, but not to time. Neurologic examination is significant for increased tone, bradykinesia, a coarse tremor, and 3/5 strength in the lower extremities. A maculopapular rash is noted on the chest, back, and arms. A lumbar puncture is performed, which demonstrates normal opening pressure, clear cerebrospinal fluid, white blood cell count of 20/mm^3 (mostly monocytes), protein of 75 mg/dL, and a glucose of 65 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

Japanese encephalitis

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Pneumococcal meningitis

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Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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Tuberculous meningitis

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West Nile virus neuroinvasive disease

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Select Answer to see Preferred Response

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This patient with a history of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease who presents with a fever, rash, confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms, and a lumbar puncture consistent with viral meningitis most likely has West Nile virus neuroinvasive disease.

West Nile (WN) virus is a flavivirus that can clinically present with a wide variety of symptoms ranging from asymptomatic infection to severe meningoencephalitis. The typical presentation among symptomatic patients is a self-limited illness with fever, headache, myalgia, anorexia, nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. A maculopapular rash can also appear in about half of patients. WN can also cause neuroinvasive disease characterized by meningitis, encephalitis, flaccid paralysis, and extrapyramidal symptoms. Risk factors for neuroinvasive disease include advanced age, previous malignancy, genetic predisposition, diabetes, hypertension, alcohol use, and male sex. In cases with central nervous system involvement, lumbar puncture usually demonstrates elevated protein, moderate lymphocytic pleocytosis, and normal glucose. Diagnosis can be secured with the WN virus IgM antibody in the serum and/or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The treatment for WN virus is supportive care.

Hart et al. studied longitudinal outcomes of West Nile virus neuroinvasive disease. The authors found that 36% of patients experienced persistent cognitive deficits, 44% had persistent cranial neuropathies, and 58% had persistent tremors. The authors recommend longitudinal follow-up for patients with WN virus neuroinvasive disease.

Incorrect Answers:
Answer 1: Japanese encephalitis is caused by a mosquito-borne flavivirus similar to West Nile virus, dengue virus, and yellow fever. It can also cause encephalitis, with symptoms including headache, fever, confusion, and seizures. However, this disease is endemic to East and Southeast Asia, and would not be expected in this patient without recent travel history.

Answer 2: Pneumococcal meningitis is acute bacterial meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Although the presentation can overlap with West Nile virus neuroinvasive disease, a lumbar puncture would be expected to reveal an elevated CSF white blood cell count with an elevated neutrophil count and decreased CSF glucose.

Answer 4: Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is a tick-borne disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii infection. It can also cause acute onset fever, headache, myalgia, nausea, rash, and encephalitis. However, RMSF is mostly found in the southeastern United States. In addition, a lumbar puncture generally shows elevated protein and polymorphonuclear pleocytosis in the CSF.

Answer 4: Tuberculous meningitis is an infection of the brain and meninges with Mycobacterium tuberculosis that presents with fever, headache, signs of meningeal irritation, and confusion. Lumbar puncture will show elevated opening pressure, pearly clumps in the CSF, elevated CSF white blood cell count with lymphocytes and monocytes, and decreased CSF glucose.

Bullet Summary:
West Nile virus neuroinvasive disease presents with fever, maculopapular rash, encephalitis, extrapyramidal symptoms, and meningeal signs, usually in children or elderly patients.

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