Review Question - QID 215180

A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care provider 1 week after a visit to the emergency department. He has no current complaints. One week ago, he experienced severe right knee pain associated with redness and swelling. A joint aspiration was performed in the emergency department and revealed findings resembling the schematic in Figure A under polarized light. His symptoms improved with naproxen and he was discharged. This was his third such episode in the past year. His medical history includes hypertension for which he takes amlodipine. The patient’s temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 134/82 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min. There is no joint erythema, warmth, swelling, or deformities. He is started on long-term therapy with a drug that decreases the production of the molecule responsible for his underlying condition. What is the mechanism of this drug?