Review Question - QID 212522

A 62-year-old man comes to his primary care physician with a 3-month history of insomnia and severe work anxiety. He says that he is unable to retire because he has no financial resources; however, the stress level at his work has been causing him to have worsening performance and he is afraid of being fired. He thinks that he would be able to resume work normally if he was able to decrease his level of anxiety. His physician prescribes him a trial 1-month regimen of benzodiazepine therapy and schedules a follow-up appointment to see whether this treatment has been effective. Three weeks later, the patient's wife calls and says "My husband was fired from work and it's your fault for prescribing that medication! I know he must have been taking too much of that drug. Don't you know that he had a horrible problem with drug abuse in his 30s?" Which of the following is the most appropriate first action for the physician to take?