Review Question - QID 210907

A 25-year-old G1P0 woman at 33 weeks gestation presents to the obstetrician for an episode of postcoital spotting. The patient’s pregnancy is complicated by diet-controlled gestational diabetes. She has no other medical conditions. She takes prenatal vitamins. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or recreational drug use. She is currently sexually active with her boyfriend of 1 year, but prior to her current relationship, she states she had multiple male partners. On physical examination, no vaginal bleeding is appreciated. The cervix is closed, and there is no leakage of fluid or contractions. Fetal movement is normal. Fundal height is 33 cm. Fetal pulse is 138/min. The patient’s temperature is 37.0 °C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 112/75 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. A urine dipstick is negative for glucose and protein. Chlamydia trachomatis nucleic acid amplification testing is positive. Which of the following is the mechanism behind the first-line treatment for this patient’s condition?