Review Question - QID 109708

A 29-year-old woman presents to the fertility clinic due to an inability to conceive. She and her husband have been attempting to have children for over a year. She underwent menarche at 16 years of age and typically has menses every 29 days regularly. Her menstrual periods would last 6 days and are mildly painful. However, she reports that her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Her medical history is non-contributory and she does not take any medications. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 125/76 mmHg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 15/min. Her body mass index is 26.3 kg/m^2. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urine hCG is negative, serum prolactin level is 75 ng/mL (normal < 20 ng/mL) and thyroid-stimulating hormone is 0.8 microU/mL. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient’s infertility?